Software Testing Test Answers 2019

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Posted on June 7, 2019

57 Test Questions:

1. From the options given below which of the dynamic program analysis technique is aimed at improving application performance?

• Code complexity analysis
• Profiling
• Network packet sniffing
• Spelling and grammar checking
• Program slicing

2. Which of the following tools supports traceability, recording of incidents, and scheduling of tests?

• Static analysis tool
• Debugging tool
• Test management tool
• Configuration management tool

3. Which of the following is not a Static testing methodology?

• Code review
• Inspection
• Walkthroughs
• System tests

< h2 >4. Choose the correct description of a Stub in software testing:

• A Stub is basically the same as a driver except that it is very fast in returning results
• A Stub is a dummy procedure, module or unit that stands in for an unfinished portion of a system
• A Stub is just a different name for an Emulator
• None of the above

5. Performance testing is used for real-time systems only.

• True
• False

6. In Bottom-up integration testing,

• Major decision points are tested in the early phase
• No drivers need to be written
• No stubs need to be written
• Regression testing is not required

7. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Test Automation?

• Test Automation is the process of writing a computer program to do testing that would otherwise need to be done manually.
• Test Automation is the use of software to control the execution of tests and the comparison of actual outcomes to predicted outcomes.
• Test Automation tools may provide record and playback features that allow users to interactively record user actions and replay it back any number of times.
• Test Automation is the set of procedures used by organizations to ensure that a software product will meet its quality goals at the best value to the customer.

8. What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is carried out?

• Unit, Integration, System, Validation
• System, Integration, Unit, Validation
• Unit, Integration, Validation, System
• None of the above

9. The determination of adherence or non adherence to a compliance is carried out during:

• Inspection
• Audit
• White-box testing
• Walkthrough

10. What do you understand by the term «Monkey test»?

• It is random testing performed by automated testing tools
• It is used to simulate the actions a user might perform
• It is another name for Monitor testing

11. Which of the following is not included in Non-functional testing?

• Load/Stress testing
• Unit testing
• Security testing
• Stress testing

12. The cursory examination of all the basic components of a software system to ensure that they work is called:

• Fuzz testing
• Black-box testing
• Sanity testing
• Smoke testing

13. When a defect is detected and fixed, the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called:

• Regression testing
• Maintenance testing
• Confirmation testing
• None of the above

14. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Code coverage?

• It describes the degree to which the source code of a program has been tested
• It is a form of White-box testing
• It is a form of Black-box testing

15. What is Boundary value testing?

• It tests values at and near the minimum and maximum allowed values for a particular input or output
• It tests different combinations of input circumstances
• It is a testing technique associated with White-box testing
• Both a and b

< h2 >16. The testing performed by external organizations or standards bodies to give greater guarantees of compliance is called:

• Usability testing
• Conformance testing
• Integration testing
• System testing

 17. Usability testing indicates that the design and system should be modified if:

• people have difficulty in understanding the instructions
• people have difficulty in manipulating the parts
• people have difficulty in interpreting the feedback
• all of the above

18. Beta testing is performed by:

• An independent test team
• The software development team
• In-house users
• External users

19. What is the name of the testing method in which (for each pair of input parameters) all the possible discrete combinations of parameters are passed on?

• Single testing
• Pairwise testing
• Unit testing
• None of the above

20. Which of the following are the objectives of using a «test harness»?

• Automating the testing process
• Executing test suites of test cases
• Generating test reports
• Creating reusable test logic to reduce maintenance and improve test coverage

21. The process of using a test case to test a specific unit of code, function, or capability is called:

• Test Run
• Test Script
• Test Plan
• Test Scenario

22. Which of the following models of software development incorporates testing into the whole software development life cycle?

• Agile model
• Waterfall model
• V-Model
• Spiral model

23. Which of the following resources are tested by most of the Stress testing tools?

• Disk space
• Network bandwidth
• Internal memory
• All of the above

24. ___________ testing is used to evaluate and understand the application’s reliability, scalability and interoperability when more users are added or the volume of data is increased.

• Integration
• Performance
• Regression
• Stability

25. What is the difference between Regression testing and Retesting?

• Retesting is done by programmers while Regression testing is done by testers
• Retesting checks for unexpected side-effects while Regression testing ensures that the original fault has been corrected
• Retesting ensures that the original fault has been corrected while Regression testing checks for other unexpected side-effects
• There is no difference between Regression testing and Retesting

26. Which of the following testing occurs outside the development environment?

• Installation testing
• White-box testing
• Module testing
• Fuzz testing

27. The testing phase in which individual software modules are combined and tested as a group is called:

• Unit testing
• Integration testing
• Module testing
• White-box testing

28. Which of the following statements holds true for Verification and Validation?

• Verification is used to check if we are doing the right thing and Validation is used to check whether we have developed the software as per the client’s requirements or not.
• Validation is used to check if we are doing the right thing and Verification is used to check whether we have developed the software as per the client’s requirements or not.
• Validation tells us what to test and Verification decides on the methodology to go about testing the application
• None of the above

29. Which of the following statements about Equivalence partitioning is correct?

• A software testing design technique in which tests are designed to include representatives of boundary values
• A type of software testing used for testing two or more modules or functions together with the intent of finding interface defects between the modules or functions
• It is the degree to which the source code of a program has been tested
• A software testing technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of data from which test cases can be derived

 30. Which of the following are benefits of automated testing?

• reusability
• efficiency
• speed
• allows testing of video and mp3 files

31. Which of the following types of errors are uncovered in White-box testing?

• Performance errors
• Logical errors
• Typographical errors
• Behavioral errors

32. Selecting the test inputs that are likely to reveal a failure associated with a particular defect is an example of the use of:

• Activity analysis
• Defect taxonomy for test design
• Root cause analysis
• Cleanroom software development

< h2 >33. Which of the following test activities provides the maximum potential cost savings from the use of Computer-Aided Software Testing (CAST)?

• Test execution
• Test planning
• Test management
• Test design

34. Which of the following strategies are used for Integration testing?

• Big Bang
• Top-down
• Bottom-up
• Any of the above strategies can be used

35. Which of the following is true about Sanity Testing?

• A Sanity test is used to determine if a small section of the application is still working after a minor change
• A Sanity test is run to check if the build of an application is stable and it can be considered for further testing
• A Sanity test is the process of testing to make sure that the older programming still works with the new changes
• All of the above are true

36. Which of the following is false about software testing?

• Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage that low level modules never need testing
• Alpha testing is in-house testing performed by the test team
• Equivalence partitioning is used to minimize the number of permutations and combinations of input data
• Fuzz testing provides random data to the input of a program

37. Which of the following is not a type of Incremental testing approach?

• Top-down
• Big-bang
• Bottom-up
• None of the above

38. What is the main reason for testing a software immediately before releasing it?

• To ensure that the system will work after release
• To decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
• To find as many bugs as possible before release
• To give information for a risk based decision about release

39. Which of the following types of testing is likely to benefit the most from the use of test tools that provide the test capture and replay facilities?

• Integration testing
• Regression testing
• System testing
• User acceptance testing

40. Identify the defect which can be detected by Equivalence Partitioning Technique:

• Improper handling of sequences of events
• Mis-handling of combinations of conditions
• Irregular handling of large and small values
• Improper handling of input classes
• Invalid output generation

41. Which of the following is not a part of System testing?

• Recovery testing and failover testing
• Performance, Load and Stress testing
• Usability testing
• Top-down integration testing

42. Which of the following Security testing concepts deals with the process of determining whether a requester is allowed to receive a service or perform an operation?

• Confidentiality
• Integrity
• Authentication
• Authorization

43. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Smoke testing and Sanity testing?

• A Smoke test is designed to touch every part of the application in a cursory way whereas a Sanity test is used to determine if a small section of the application is still working after a minor change
• A Smoke test adopts a shallow and wide approach whereas a Sanity test is a narrow regression test that focuses on one, or a few areas of functionality. Sanity testing is usually narrow and deep
• A Smoke test is usually unscripted whereas a Sanity test is scripted either using a written set of tests or an automated test
• A Smoke test is a normal health checkup to a build of an application before taking it to in-depth testing whereas a Sanity test is to verify whether all requirements are met or not, checking all features breadth-first

44. From the following options, choose the best example which represents a reliability failure for an application:

• Slow response time
• Excessive application consumption
• Random application termination
• Failure to encrypt data

45. In which of the following testing methodologies does the automatic generation of efficient test procedures/vectors use models of system requirements and specified functionality?

• Repetitive testing
• Model testing
• Modular testing
• System testing

46. Which of the following is true regarding Static Analysis tools?

• They help you find defects rather than failures
• They are used by developers only
• They require compilation of code
• All of the above

47. The review of a technical document such as requirements specs or a test plan, with the purpose of looking for problems and seeing what is missing, without fixing anything is called:

• Inspection
• Black box testing
• White box testing
• Walkthrough

48. Which of the following options correctly defines the term «test harness»?

• It is a high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
• It is a set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
• It is a collection of software and test data configured to test a program unit by running it under varying conditions and monitoring its behavior and outputs
• It is a set of several test cases for a component or a system under test

49. Which one of the following is a major benefit of verification early in the software development life cycle?

• It allows the identification of changes in user requirements
• It facilitates timely set up of the test environment
• It reduces defect multiplication
• It allows testers to become involved early in the project

< h2 >50. Identification of set-use pairs is accomplished during which of the following static analysis activities?

• Control flow analysis
• Data flow analysis
• Coding standards analysis
• Function Point Analysis

51. What would be the appropriate result of a Stress test at its peak?

• A gradual performance slow-down leading to a non-catastrophic system halt
• A gradual performance improvement leading to a catastrophic system halt
• A gradual performance slow-down leading to a catastrophic system halt
• A gradual performance improvement to a non-catastrophic system halt

52. In which type of testing is random data generated for input into the software?

• Smoke testing
• Marge testing
• Fuzz testing
• Operation testing

53. Which of the following is incorrect for Black-box testing?

• It takes an external perspective of the test object to derive test cases.
• It is sometimes also called as Opaque Testing, Functional Testing and Closed Box Testing.
• It uses an internal perspective of the system to design test cases based on internal structure.

54. Which of the following statements is not true regarding capture/replay tools?

• They are used to support multi-user testing
• They capture aspects of user behavior
• They are the most frequently used types of CAST tools
• They are used to capture and playback user requirements

55. The main focus of Black-box testing is:

• to check for logical errors
• to ensure that each code statement is executed once
• to test the functionality of the system as a whole
• to identify all paths through the software

56. Which of the following is written by a programmer and is meant to call the function to be tested by passing test data to it?

• Stub
• Driver
• Proxy

57. Which of the following types of testing emulates the real world use of a system and verifies that the product fulfills the intended requirements?

• System testing
• Model testing
• Integration testing
• User acceptance testing

58. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?

v – test control
w – test monitoring
x – test estimation
y – incident management
z – configuration control

1 – calculation of required test resources
2 – maintenance of record of test results
3 – re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 – report on deviation from test plan
5 – tracking of anomalous test results

• v-2, w-1, x-4, y-3, z-5
• v-3, w-4, x-1, y-5, z-2
• v-2, w-5, x-1, y-4, z-3
• v-3, w-2, x-1, y-5, z-4

59. Which of the following are types of robustness tests?

• Boundary Value
• Power Cycling
• High Availability
• Degraded Node
• All of the above

60. The design pattern Model View Presenter(MVP) often replaces the Model view controller (MVC) pattern for desktop or browser applications with a complex Graphical user interface. Choose the best reason for choosing MVP over MVC
Note: There may be more than one right answer.

• You want to mix you controller code with the view layer because its JSP and selinium webdriver
• You want to maximize the amount of code that can be tested with automation
• You want to mix your model code with the view layer because its AngularJS and Jasmine
• Your view interacts directly with the model to perform simple data binding tests

61. A life-cycle __ allows us to have a repeatable and hence predictable, test process?

• Model
• Procedures
• Techniques
• Program

62. Which of the following is not an automated testing tool?

• Selenium 2
• Web Test in Visual Studio
• WatiN

63. What are kinds of Beta Testing?
Note: There may be more than one right answer.

• Technical beta
• Acceptance beta
• Marketing beta
• Alpha beta

64. Choose the best strategy for automated testing of a rest API.

• Run the test suite against a full environment deployed across several machines
• Don’t chain tests together for scenarios that require authentication
• Have alerts notify you as soon as a particular test fails
• Run the tests in your CI server

65. Components of automation infrastructure consist of following?

• System to be tested
• Test platform
• Test library
• Automated testing practices
• All of the above

66. Choose a True statement about Robust and Reliable?
Note: There may be more than one right answer.

• The test case should have a single objective. Multiobjective test cases are difficult to understand and design
• The setup phase ensures that the initial conditions are met before the start of the test steps
• A test case verdict (pass–fail) should be assigned in such a way that it should be unambiguous and understandable
• Robust test cases can ignore trivial failures such as one-pixel mismatch in a graphical display. Care should be taken so that false test results are minimized

67. Choose the correct expression to describe the role of Automated testing in the Software Development Life Cycle
Note: There may be more than one right answer.

• the purpose of automated testing is to find bugs
• the purpose of automated testing is to find regressions
• the purpose of automated testing is to go through scenarios for the whole system
• the purpose of automated testing is to go through test cases for the whole system

68. Choose the most correct way to implement the testing phase in a ‘scrum’ workflow

• Impose strict deadlines
• Shoud wait until the manager considers the task done before testing
• There should be a single test for each user story
• Cover the smoke test and the regression testing with an automated continuous integration environment triggerd by developer commits

69. Which of the following major steps in automated test case?
Note: There may be more than one right answer.

• Drive the test hardware
• Determine the verdict
• Capture the response
• Cleanup
• Log the fileserver

70. You need to set up automated performance tests choose the best stratagem to deal with different computers have different CPU speeds?

• Quantify your performance metrics for the best machine that code will run on
• Running the tests on developers systems
• run the test suites at night when the load is a minimum for the network
• Run the tests under load/strain and if they pass they will be fine for normal use

71. Choose the best description for the difference between manual and automated testing.

• Automated testing is best for usability testing
• Manual testing is a process where a person directly tests a piece of software
• Automated testing is cost effective
• Automated testing allows you to manage tight deadlines

72. The following areas are of special interest during interface stress testing?

• Module Interactions: Run tests repeatedly that stress the interactions of a module with other modules
• CPU Cycles: Induce high CPU utilization by using a CPU overload tool; pay attention to any resulting queue overflows and other producer/consumer overrun conditions
• Memory/Disk Usage: Artificially reduce the levels of heaps and/or mem- ory buffers and disk space
• Starvation: Ensure that the processes or tasks are not starved; otherwise eventually the input queues overflow for the starved processes
• All of the above

73. Choose the statement that best describes the role of continuous integration in software testing.

• Enables you to better test how the application should behave with or without the new features.
• Will run tests automatically every time code is checked in to version control.
• Provides an integration test environment for multiple projects.
• Provides an integration test environment where you can assemble and test the things that might go to production.

74. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

• Lack of technical documentation
• Lack of test tools on the market for developers
• Lack of training
• Lack of objectivity

75. Choose the statement that best describes “Regression Test”.

• Performing tests after a bug has been fixed
• ‘light-weight’ quick tests that are run at the start to save time
• Any tests that spin up a thread or use the filesystem
• Test dependencies that are slow / hard to understand

76. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost savings from the use of CAST?

• Test management
• Test design
• Test execution
• Test planning

77. A failure is:

• found in the software; the result of an error
• deviation from specified behavior
• an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program
• a human action that produces an incorrect result

78. The cost of fixing a fault:

• Is not important
• Increases as we move the product towards live use
• Decreases as we move the product towards live use
• Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
• Can never be determined

79. In testable requirements, which of the following items must be analyzed during the review of requirements? (choose all that apply)
Note: There may be more than one right answer.

• Completeness
• Correctness
• Consistency
• Feasibility

80. Which of the following is a Process?

• Unit testing
• Integration Testing
• Functional testing
• Test Closure

81. Choose the statement that best describes “Integration Test”

• Is written to test part of the specification
• Check a particular feature for correctness
• Performing tests on the inter-operation of multiple subsystems
• Test’s development branch commits in continous intergration

82. In Level 2:Phase Institutionalize basic testing techniques and methods can initiate a test planning process by: (choose all that apply)
Note: There may be more than one right answer.

• Develop testing
• Debugging
• Q/A
• Developing and Packaging

83. The TMM framework describes an evolutionary path of test process maturity in ____ levels, or stages?

• One
• Two
• Three
• Four
• Five

84. The MTBF for a module or a system is derived from which various sources?

• laboratory tests
• actual field failure data
• prediction models
• All of the above

85. In software engineering tests that conform to the “agile” methodololgy would be

• Tests that Spin up a thread
• A form of quality control
• A component in a Software development life cycle
• Tests to fine tune the code that they are delivering

86. Software testing is treated as a distinct process because it involves a variety of unique ____, ____, strategies, and policies?

• activities, techniques
• section, techniques
• specification, average
• techniques, testing

87. Choose the statement that best describes “Smoke Test”.

• A shotgun approach to suppress warning messages in tests
• Used for Command-Line-Interface component testing
• Tests feature branch commits in continous intergration
• Performing tests on systems to check everything runs normally

88. How can a tester be sure that a bug was fixed? (choose all that apply)
Note: There may be more than one right answer.

• — execute the steps in the bug report
— make sure the fixed bug does not result in new bugs in the same area
• We can never say that any testing process is completed because it is the part of quality, it is continuous monitoring and improving the process. We can decide the % of testing performed on the application, on the behalf of risk analysis.
• It is not possible because there is no system/project which is 100% bug-free.
• If the client says that the bug is fixed, it means that the bug is fixed and it can be closed.
• By retesting the failed test & relatively passed tests on the modified build

89. Choose the correct statement that describes the role tests for “Requirements analysis” in a scrum methodology.

• The Requirements analysis is performed by every member of the team in test design
• Requirements analysis is performed by the scrum master only and handed on down for test development
• Requirements analysisis is performed by a sub team for test development
• Only Individual Team members with specialized skills and focus design the tests based on the Requirements analysis

90. Which is not a testing principle?

• Early testing
• Defect clustering
• Pesticide paradox
• Exhaustive testing

91. What is Auto-Discovery?

• EMS discovery software can be installed on the server to discover elements attached to the EMS through the IP network
• An EMS server detects a system unreachable condition within a certain time duration
• The EMS server synchronizes alarm status, configuration data, and global positioning system (GPS) time from the NE
• The EMS server always logs errors and exceptions

92. In Test Process Management, test processes are highly visible to __. (choose all that apply)
Note: There may be more than one right answer.

• Developers
• Marketing managers
• Customers

93. Choose the statement that best describes “Functional Test”.

• Tests functional code
• Tests functional code for side effects
• Tests whether the application’s functionality satisfies the specification
• Performing tests on a specification

94. A traceability matrix finds the following applications? (choose all that apply)
Note: There may be more than one right answer.

• To identify and track the functional coverage of a test
• To identify which test cases must be exercised or updated when a system evolves
• To identify requirement to a functional specification to specific tests which exercise the requirements